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Paradigm shift in global gay rights
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[quote] [b]DavidJCobb said:[/b] A failure to grant rights that are deserved could kinda be considered a violation of those rights. During slavery, blacks' rights weren't violated because they never had rights -- but I would still consider the actions of slaveowners as violating their slaves' rights, despite the fact that the slaves didn't officially have such rights. [/quote] I see where you're coming from but do not believe rights, in the sense that we're talking, are something to be granted. All people have certain universal, inalienable rights that colonial Americans accurately (IMO) summed up as life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness. That those rights were denied to blacks during slavery did not mean they didn't exist. Their rights were being violated. I don't believe that's the case with gays in the United States and fail to see a universal, inalienable right that the United States must recognize marriage amongst everyone. If the USA gets out of the marriage business altogether, which I would whole heatedly support, would that mean everyone's rights were suddenly violated? If the USA ceases to exist in 100 years, does that mean rights will be forever violated going forward? As a single male, does it mean that my rights are currently being violated because the government will not recognize me as married until I legally marry a woman? [small](Edited by [url=http://www.ozoneasylum.com/user/257]Jestah[/url] on 06-07-2009 18:37)[/small]
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