Topic: Is homosexuality supported by the Bible? (Page 1 of 1)

This new church group has gotten a lot of publicity lately with the new "Jesus affirmed a gay couple" signs, along with other passages in the Bible which seem to suggest that homosexuality is supported, rather than condemned in the Bible. Here is a link to the channel 6 news story http://www.theindychannel.com/news/13020197/detail.html
Homosexuality and the Bible have been brought up in here before, but I can't recall the Bible being used to support homosexuality. What do you guys think?

"For reason is a property of God's...moreover, there is nothing He does not wish to be investigated and understood by reason." ~Tertullian de paenitentia Carthaginian Historian 2nd century AD

well, how do you feel about it? I assume you have an opinion on the matter...
It may be more helpful to link to their website - http://wouldjesusdiscriminate.com/index.html than to a news story about the vandalism


Anyway, it can be at least as reasonably argued that the passages they reference can argue in favor of homosexuality as it can that the traditionally used passages condemn homosexuality, IMO.

I just read the article on Jesus affirming the gay couple. Not being familiar with the original Greek, I can only take their word as to its meaning. And I have no reason to suspect that they would lie about the meaning of words like pais and doulos. However, even granting that the words in question have the meanings that they say they do, I'm not sure if the "conclusion is inescapable." I would say that, if their textual analysis is correct, then yes, there is a possibility that the centurion was talking about his gay lover. I can't say that he was definitely talking about a gay lover, though, and not just an honored slave (is it not possible that the centurion could have had a special relationship with a slave without that relationship being homosexual?).

But all of this is kind of beside the point for me. The answer to the question, "would Jesus discriminate?" is clear: no, of course he wouldn't. He didn't discriminate against the Samaritan woman who had had many lovers and was at that time living with a man who was not her husband . He didn't discriminate against the tax collectors, the prostitutes, and all the other "undesirables" when he chose to eat with them rather than moe "respectable" individuals. In fact, the only people Jesus ever attacked were the religious leaders (and the money changers in the temple on one occasion of which we know).

Anyone who understands Jesus message and is not interested in using the Bible to support their own prejudices will most likely see this as stating the obvious. In fact, I think it's kind of sad that this website has to go to these lengths to prove something that should already be obvious.

[Edit: Just watched the introductory video and did a little more poking around. A lot of food for thought there.]


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Suho: www.liminality.org | Cell 270 | Sig Rotator | the Fellowship of Sup

(Edited by Suho1004 on 05-14-2007 09:06)

Of course I have an opinion on it. :-) But I was looking more for what you guys thought. I know you all have done some research into what the Bible says before. I was wondering if you had done anything on this subject. It is actually a fairly new idea that has been popularized in several churches I know of in my home town. I am kinda worried because it seems to me like people are taking a word and pushing it so far to stretch it into a meaning that it didn't necessarily have. I could be wrong tho.
And Jesus didn't discriminate those who he hung out with. And he did invite everyone to come with Him. But He did say that only those who did what His Father wanted would be saved. :-)

"For reason is a property of God's...moreover, there is nothing He does not wish to be investigated and understood by reason." ~Tertullian de paenitentia Carthaginian Historian 2nd century AD